Nursing Elites

1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the heparin drip before initiating the Coumadin
• B. Check the client’s INR before beginning Coumadin
• C. Clarify the order with the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

2. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.

3. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?

• A. The nurse repeats the information as indicated by the client’s questions
• B. The nurse teaches all the information needed by the client in one session
• C. The nurse uses a video to explain with medical terms to the client
• D. The nurse waits until the client asks questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client’s questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.

4. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
• C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
• D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.

5. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.

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