Nursing Elites

1. In patients with heart failure, which type of diet is most recommended?

• A. High-sodium
• B. Low-sodium
• C. High-fat
• D. Low-carbohydrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-sodium diet is most recommended for patients with heart failure. This type of diet helps manage fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the body, which in turn decreases the workload on the heart. High-sodium diets can lead to fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. High-fat and low-carbohydrate diets are not specifically recommended for heart failure patients as the focus is primarily on controlling sodium intake.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
• B. Perform active range of motion exercises
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.

3. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the heparin drip prior to initiating the Coumadin
• B. Check the client’s INR prior to beginning Coumadin
• C. Clarify the order with the health care provider as soon as possible
• D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.

4. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis, requiring immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, though important, does not indicate an immediate need for assessment. Option B, a client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom, does not present with urgent signs or symptoms requiring immediate assessment. Option D, a client with arterial occlusive disease and a decreased pedal pulse, needs attention but is not the priority compared to a hypertensive crisis with epistaxis and headache.

5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

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