Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

3. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?

• A. Fosfomycin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Nafcillin
• D. Cefaclor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

5. When should Montelukast be taken?

• A. At least two hours before exercise
• B. Daily in the evening
• C. Two hours before exercise or daily in the evening
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.

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