ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Previous history of thromboembolism
- B. Concurrent use of an antacid
- C. History of bronchial asthma
- D. Recent weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.
2. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?
- A. To assess for renal impairment
- B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
- C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
- D. To assess for NSAID use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.
3. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication before bedtime.
- B. I will discontinue this medication if I experience drowsiness.
- C. I should report restlessness or involuntary movements.
- D. This medication can change the color of my urine to orange.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?
- A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion
- B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hours
- C. Minimizing tourniquet time
- D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.
5. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.
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