Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

• A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
• B. Obtain help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product.
• C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
• D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.

2. A client starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV infection is being educated by a nurse on preventing medication resistance. What information should the nurse provide the client about resistance?

• A. Taking low dosages of antiretroviral medication minimizes resistance.
• B. Taking one antiretroviral medication at a time minimizes resistance.
• C. Taking medication at the same time daily without missing doses minimizes resistance.
• D. Changing the medication regimen when adverse effects occur minimizes resistance.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent the development of medication resistance, it is crucial for the client to take antiretroviral medication consistently at the same time daily without missing doses. This practice helps maintain effective drug levels in the body, reducing the risk of resistance development.

3. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

4. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Cholesterol level.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood glucose level.
• D. Calcium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.

5. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?

• A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
• B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
• C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
• D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.

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