ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen the nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
2. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.
3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Expect to have increased urination.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.
4. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Foods high in potassium
- C. Foods high in sodium
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.
5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with grapefruit juice.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Patients should monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to assess the medication's effectiveness and check for adverse effects like bradycardia or hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because Atenolol should not be taken with grapefruit juice, which can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Atenolol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not a rapid heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Atenolol.
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