Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Begin the prescribed infusion via the new access
• B. Ensure an x-ray is completed to confirm placement.
• C. Check medication calculations with a second RN.
• D. Make sure the solution is appropriate for a central line

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. A nurse is visiting an 84-year-old woman living at home and recovering from hip surgery. The woman seems confused and has poor skin turgor, and she states that 'she stops drinking water early in the day because it is too difficult to get up during the night to go to the bathroom.' The nurse explains to the woman that:

• A. She will need to have her medications adjusted and be readmitted to the hospital for a complete workup.
• B. Limiting fluids can create imbalances in the body that can result in confusion; maybe we need to adjust the timing of your fluids.
• C. It is normal to be a little confused following surgery and it is safe not to urinate at night.
• D. Confusion following surgery is common in the elderly due to loss of sleep.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In elderly patients, fluid deficits can lead to confusion and cognitive impairment. Limiting fluids can disrupt the body's balance, leading to such symptoms. Adjusting the timing of fluids can help maintain hydration without causing nighttime interruptions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the underlying issue of fluid imbalance causing confusion. Choice A suggests unnecessary hospital readmission and medication adjustments. Choice C incorrectly normalizes confusion post-surgery and suggests it is safe not to urinate at night, which can exacerbate the issue. Choice D inaccurately attributes confusion to sleep loss rather than fluid imbalance.

3. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
• C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

5. A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.32, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Assess clients rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration.
• B. Measure the clients pulse and blood pressure.
• C. Document the findings and continue to monitor.
• D. Notify the physician as soon as possible.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

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