Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
• C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

2. You are working on a burns unit, and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hypermagnesemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypovolemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient exhibits signs and symptoms of third-spacing, where fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, hypovolemia is expected. This leads to a decreased circulating blood volume. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not typically associated with third-spacing fluid shift. Burns usually result in acidosis rather than alkalosis, making metabolic alkalosis an incorrect choice. Therefore, hypovolemia is the correct answer in this scenario.

3. You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

5. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

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