Nursing Elites

1. You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Increased DTRs
• D. Shallow respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response?

• A. The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
• B. Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion.
• C. Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
• D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?

• A. Agitation
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Seizures
• D. Positive Chvosteks sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. When planning the care of a patient with a fluid imbalance, the nurse understands that in the human body, water and electrolytes move from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid. What causes this to occur?

• A. Active transport of hydrogen ions across the capillary walls
• B. Pressure of the blood in the renal capillaries
• C. Action of the dissolved particles contained in a unit of blood
• D. Hydrostatic pressure resulting from the pumping action of the heart

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

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