Nursing Elites

1. You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperchloremia
• D. Hypophosphatemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems?

• A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Cool, clammy skin
• D. Acute flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: To assess a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. Diminished deep tendon reflexes may indicate high serum magnesium levels, as hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular effects. Tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and acute flank pain are not typically associated with high magnesium levels and are not priority assessments in this situation.

3. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• B. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor.
• C. Assess urinary output.
• D. Administer oral calcitonin (Calcimar).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage oral fluid intake. With a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL, the client is at risk of hypercalcemia. Encouraging oral fluid intake helps to promote hydration and can help prevent further elevation of calcium levels. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (Choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Assessing urinary output (Choice C) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of high serum calcium levels. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (Choice D) may be a treatment option later, but the first step should be to address hydration.

5. Which negative ion is most abundant in blood plasma?

• A. Bicarbonate
• B. Chloride
• C. Hydroxide
• D. Phosphate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chloride (Cl-) is the most abundant anion in blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic balance and acid-base homeostasis. Bicarbonate (Choice A) is important for buffering acids in the body but is not the most abundant negative ion in blood plasma. Hydroxide (Choice C) is not typically found in high concentrations in blood plasma. Phosphate (Choice D) is an important anion in the body but is not as abundant as chloride in blood plasma.

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