ATI RN
ATI Fluid and Electrolytes
1. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
- A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
- B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
- D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO2 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the arterial blood gas results is metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the primary acid-base disturbance and the compensatory response seen in the given results.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Begin the prescribed infusion via the new access
- B. Ensure an x-ray is completed to confirm placement.
- C. Check medication calculations with a second RN.
- D. Make sure the solution is appropriate for a central line
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
3. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patients most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patients magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the followin
- A. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Cool, clammy skin
- D. Acute flank pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
- A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
- B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
- C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
- D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.
5. You are the nurse caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You and your colleague note that the patients labs indicate minimally elevated serum creatinine levels, which your colleague dismisses. What can this increase in creatinine indicate in older adults?
- A. Substantially reduced renal function
- B. Acute kidney injury
- C. Decreased cardiac output
- D. ) Alterations in ratio of body fluids to muscle mass
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access