ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test B 2019
1. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking the Licensure examination?
- A. Internationally well known experts which services are for a fee
- B. Those that are hired by local hospitals in the country
- C. Expert nurse clinicians hired by prestigious hospitals
- D. Those involved in medical mission who’s services are for free
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. Which assessment finding indicates effective treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. The client's glucose is within the normal range.
- B. The client ate 80% of their breakfast tray.
- C. There is no protein in the client's urine.
- D. The client's blood pressure is 145/75 mmHg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Improved appetite and food intake is an indication of effective treatment.
3. Is the loss of teeth or supporting periodontium often associated with poor food selection and limited chewing ability, and do the patients' masticatory efficiency and biting force decline with each tooth lost?
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Both statements are indeed true. The loss of teeth or supporting periodontium frequently leads to poor food selection and limited chewing ability, as these conditions can make certain foods difficult to consume. Additionally, a patient's masticatory efficiency and biting force do decline with each tooth lost, as there are fewer teeth to distribute the force of the bite. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest that one or both of these statements are false, which is not the case.
4. In an extreme situation and when no other resident or intern is available, should a nurse receive telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within:
- A. 24 hours
- B. 36 hours
- C. 48 hours
- D. 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an extreme situation where no other resident or intern is available, if a nurse receives telephone orders, the order has to be correctly written and signed by the physician within 36 hours. This time frame ensures timely documentation and validation of the orders. Choice A (24 hours) is too short a period for busy physicians to fulfill the task. Choice C (48 hours) is too long and delays the incorporation of physician orders into the patient's care plan. Choice D (12 hours) may not provide enough time for the physician to review and sign the order, especially in situations where immediate attention is not required.
5. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?
- A. confusion and difficulty speaking
- B. headache and blurred vision
- C. chest pain and pressure
- D. claudication and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.
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