Nursing Elites

1. What side effect should the nurse include in the parent teaching for a child prescribed a baclofen pump for cerebral palsy?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertonia
• C. Hypotonia
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a child is prescribed a baclofen pump for cerebral palsy, one of the common side effects to include in parent teaching is hypotonia. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant, can lead to decreased muscle tone, resulting in hypotonia. It is important for parents to be aware of this potential side effect and know how to respond accordingly.

2. A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?

• A. The child has a crush on the teacher.
• B. The child has increased intracranial pressure.
• C. The child may have had a head injury.
• D. The child is experiencing absence seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Staring spells that end abruptly and are followed by normal activity are indicative of absence seizures. In absence seizures, a child may exhibit staring spells, brief loss of awareness, and lack of responsiveness, which can last for a few seconds. Choice A is incorrect because the behavior described is not associated with having a crush. Choice B is incorrect as increased intracranial pressure usually presents with other symptoms. Choice C is less likely as a head injury would typically manifest with additional signs beyond just staring and blinking.

3. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

4. Which principle does not follow neuromaturational theory?

• A. The sequence and rate of motor development are consistent among infants
• B. Movement emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems
• C. Movement progresses from primitive reflexes to voluntary control
• D. Low-level skills are prerequisites for certain high-level skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neuromaturational theory emphasizes that motor development progresses in a predictable sequence and rate, starting from primitive reflexes to voluntary control. It also states that low-level skills are foundational for higher-level skills. However, the theory does not support the idea that movement solely emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems, as it focuses more on the hierarchical development of motor skills.

5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

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