Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?

• A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
• B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
• C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
• D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.

2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

3. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

4. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

5. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?

• A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
• B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
• C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
• D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.

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