Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following symptoms is common with a hiatal hernia?

• A. Left arm pain
• B. Lower back pain
• C. Esophageal reflux
• D. Abdominal cramping

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Esophageal reflux is a common symptom of a hiatal hernia because the hernia can cause stomach acid to move back up into the esophagus.

2. To accurately assess for jaundice in a patient with dark skin pigmentation, the nurse should examine which body areas?

• A. Nail beds
• B. Skin on the back of the hand
• C. Hard palate of the mouth
• D. Soles of the feet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To accurately assess for jaundice in a patient with dark skin pigmentation, the nurse should examine the hard palate of the mouth. Jaundice is best assessed in the sclera; however, in dark-skinned patients, normal yellow pigmentation may be present in the sclera, making it difficult to detect jaundice. Inspection of the hard palate for a yellow color can confirm the presence of jaundice. Cyanosis is best observed in the nail beds, not indicative of jaundice. While skin on the palm of the hand can indicate jaundice, the back of the hand is not a typical area for assessment. Jaundice can be assessed on the soles of the feet in dark-skinned patients, but it is better visualized in the hard palate for accurate evaluation.

3. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

4. You’re developing the plan of care for a patient experiencing dumping syndrome after a Billroth II procedure. Which dietary instructions do you include?

• A. Omit fluids with meals.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake.
• C. Decrease protein intake.
• D. Decrease fat intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To manage dumping syndrome, it is important to omit fluids with meals to slow gastric emptying.

5. Leigh Ann is receiving pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis. Which observation best indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. There is no skin breakdown.
• B. Her appetite improves.
• C. She loses more than 10 lbs.
• D. Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The effectiveness of pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis is best indicated by stools being less fatty and decreased in frequency.

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