ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which of the following statements best describes the role of a community health nurse?
- A. Provides direct patient care in hospital settings
- B. Conducts health education and community organizing activities
- C. Coordinates care for individuals and families
- D. Advocates for health policies and programs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Community health nurses play a crucial role in conducting health education and community organizing activities within the community. They focus on promoting health, preventing diseases, and improving the overall well-being of the community members by organizing educational programs and initiatives. While they may be involved in coordinating care to some extent, their primary focus lies in health education and community outreach.
2. Which best describes a key principle of public health?
- A. Focusing on individual health behaviors
- B. Addressing the social determinants of health
- C. Reducing health care costs
- D. Increasing access to health services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A key principle of public health is addressing the social determinants of health, which include factors like socioeconomic status, education, and environment. By focusing on these determinants, public health initiatives aim to improve overall health outcomes for entire populations, rather than just individual health behaviors. This approach helps in creating a healthier society and preventing diseases at a broader level.
3. Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a certain program of the DOH?
- A. Family treatment record
- B. Target Client list
- C. Reporting forms
- D. Output record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Target Client List is specifically designed to monitor and track specific groups that are eligible for the programs offered by the DOH. This list helps in identifying and managing the individuals or populations that qualify for specific services or interventions, ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively to those who meet the eligibility criteria.
4. Which best describes a key goal of secondary prevention?
- A. Preventing the onset of disease
- B. Detecting diseases early
- C. Managing chronic conditions
- D. Improving quality of life
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The key goal of secondary prevention is to detect diseases early before they progress to advanced stages. By identifying diseases at an early stage, healthcare providers can intervene promptly, initiate treatment, and potentially improve patient outcomes. This approach aims to prevent complications and reduce the impact of the disease on an individual's health and well-being.
5. Which of the following is not a therapeutic indication of bone marrow puncture?
- A. Analgesia
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Anaesthesia
- D. Inflammation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bone marrow puncture is not typically performed for analgesia purposes. It is primarily done for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons, such as obtaining a sample for testing, administering medications like antibiotics, providing anesthesia during the procedure, or treating conditions related to inflammation. Analgesia, which refers to pain relief, is not a direct therapeutic indication for bone marrow puncture.
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