which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy
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Nursing Elites

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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. The decades between the 1960s and 1980s brought about many changes in nursing. Which of the following contributed to advances in nursing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the development of specialty care disciplines, such as intensive care, neurosurgical techniques, and cardiothoracic surgery, played a significant role in advancing nursing during the specified decades. Choice A is incorrect as decreased demand for health care would not drive advances in nursing. Choice C is also incorrect as gender discrimination, while an issue in the past, does not directly relate to the advancements in nursing during this period. Choice D is incorrect because advances in technology usually lead to more specialized care rather than generalized care.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ketones in the urine may indicate infection or blockage in the urinary catheter, necessitating irrigation to ensure proper drainage. Choice B, an unusual odor in the urine, may suggest infection but does not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choice C, a high urine specific gravity, is indicative of concentrated urine but does not specifically point to the need for catheter irrigation. Choice D, a bladder scan showing 525 mL of urine, indicates urine retention, which may require catheterization or further assessment but not necessarily irrigation.

4. What is the primary responsibility of a clinical nurse leader (CNL)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main role of a clinical nurse leader (CNL) is to coordinate patient care. While CNLs may oversee aspects of nursing staff, the primary focus is on coordinating patient care to ensure effective treatment and outcomes. Developing nursing policies and implementing evidence-based practice are important aspects of nursing leadership but are not the main role of a CNL.

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of patient autonomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient autonomy refers to the right of patients to make their own healthcare decisions based on their values and preferences. It emphasizes the importance of respecting patients' rights to choose their treatment options, even if their decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. Choice B, the duty to do no harm, refers to the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, which is separate from patient autonomy. Choice C, the obligation to tell the truth, is related to the principle of veracity and does not directly encompass patient autonomy. Choice D, the responsibility to provide equitable care, pertains to the concept of justice in healthcare and is not synonymous with patient autonomy.

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