Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. One of the perceptions of turnover is:

• A. Poor management
• B. Rejection of the job
• C. Loss of poor performers
• D. Poor job atmosphere

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rejection of the job.' According to Steers and Stone, turnover can be perceived by coworkers as a rejection of the job. Choice A, 'Poor management,' is incorrect because turnover perception is more related to individual feelings about the job rather than management. Choice C, 'Loss of poor performers,' is incorrect as it focuses on the outcome of turnover rather than the perception. Choice D, 'Poor job atmosphere,' is incorrect as it describes a cause of turnover rather than a perception.

3. An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders?

• A. Use shortcuts in documentation.
• B. Only use approved abbreviations.
• C. Documentation should be subjective.
• D. Document after care is provided.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation the RN should include in the reminders is to 'Only use approved abbreviations.' Using shortcuts in documentation (choice A) may lead to errors or omissions, affecting the credibility of documentation. Documentation should be objective (choice C) rather than subjective to ensure accuracy and legal credibility. It is essential to document care promptly after providing it (choice D) to maintain the accuracy and completeness of patient records, but using approved abbreviations is a more specific recommendation to enhance legal credibility.

4. What is the main goal of discharge planning?

• A. To ensure that patients are discharged as quickly as possible
• B. To prevent hospital readmissions
• C. To educate patients about their medications
• D. To transition patients from one level of care to another

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main goal of discharge planning is to prevent hospital readmissions by ensuring patients have a clear and effective plan for post-discharge care. This includes coordinating follow-up appointments, medication management, and providing necessary support services to promote a successful transition from the hospital to home or another care setting. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discharge planning is not primarily about speedy discharge, medication education, or transitioning between care levels; its main focus is on preventing readmissions through comprehensive post-discharge care.

5. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?

• A. A patient fall with no injury
• B. A medication error that results in no harm
• C. A patient suicide while in a healthcare facility
• D. A near miss incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient suicide while in a healthcare facility. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the criteria for sentinel events as described by The Joint Commission, as they do not involve death or serious harm to the patient.

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