which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Leadership Proctored

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. What is the focus of a continuous quality improvement program?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client. Continuous quality improvement programs are primarily focused on improving services and outcomes for clients or patients. While families, nurses, and physicians are essential in healthcare, in the context of quality improvement, the main focus is on enhancing the experience and results for the clients receiving care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of a continuous quality improvement program, which is to enhance client satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

3. Which of the following best describes the concept of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Interprofessional collaboration in healthcare refers to the coordinated efforts of multiple healthcare professionals working together to enhance patient outcomes. This collaborative approach involves professionals from different disciplines contributing their expertise to provide comprehensive care and improve the overall quality of patient treatment. Choice B is incorrect because interprofessional collaboration emphasizes teamwork and collective efforts rather than working independently. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to standardization of care protocols, not collaboration among professionals. Choice D is incorrect as sharing patient information electronically is a component of information exchange but not the primary focus of interprofessional collaboration.

4. If a staff member does not respond to discipline, the manager must ______ employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an employee does not respond to disciplinary measures, termination may be necessary. This is a last resort for managers when other strategies to improve performance have failed. Terminating an employee means ending their employment with the organization. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the question specifically asks what action the manager must take when an employee does not respond to discipline. Confronting the employee, describing the behavior, or determining awareness of the policy are steps that may precede termination but are not the final action to be taken.

5. When a client with a terminal diagnosis asks about advance directives, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct response as it demonstrates active listening and empathy by engaging the client in a discussion about their concerns regarding advance directives. It also recognizes the importance of involving the client's partner in such discussions, promoting shared decision-making and support. Choices B and C lack the personalized approach needed in this situation and do not address the client's immediate request for information. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's expressed need to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings, delaying a crucial conversation.

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