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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering flu vaccinations
- B. Screening for hypertension
- C. Performing a mastectomy
- D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.
2. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?
- A. Financial performance
- B. Regulatory compliance
- C. Patient care quality
- D. Staff satisfaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.
3. Which of the following is an example of total time lost?
- A. Number of days off that an employee asks for
- B. Number of scheduled days missed
- C. Number of days missed
- D. Number of days perceived to be absent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Total time lost refers to the number of scheduled days that an employee misses. This includes days that were planned to be worked but were not. Choice A, 'Number of days off that an employee asks for,' is not necessarily time lost as these are approved absences. Choice C, 'Number of days missed,' is vague and does not specify if they are scheduled or unscheduled. Choice D, 'Number of days perceived to be absent,' is subjective and does not clearly relate to scheduled time lost.
4. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?
- A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
- B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
- C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
- D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
5. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse advocate?
- A. Direct patient care provider
- B. Advocate for patient needs
- C. Manage nursing staff
- D. Ensure policy adherence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Advocate for patient needs.' A nurse advocate's primary role is to stand up for the patient's rights and ensure their needs are met. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as while nurses do provide direct patient care, the specific role of a nurse advocate goes beyond that. Choice C, 'Manage nursing staff,' is incorrect as this pertains to a nurse manager's role, not a nurse advocate. Choice D, 'Ensure policy adherence,' is also incorrect as this reflects more of a quality assurance or compliance role, rather than the advocacy role of a nurse advocate.
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