which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy
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Nursing Elites

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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. Upon noticing a visitor who is loud and active and carrying a gun on the unit where you are in charge, what should you do immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a visitor arrives on the unit with a gun, it is essential to prioritize the safety of patients and staff. Immediately notifying security with all the relevant details is the correct course of action. Asking the visitor to leave or engaging them could escalate the situation and put everyone at risk. Similarly, requesting the gun from the visitor directly is not advisable as it could lead to a dangerous confrontation. By alerting security promptly, you enable trained professionals to handle the situation safely and effectively, minimizing risks and ensuring the safety of all individuals involved.

3. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

4. An RN knows that sometimes, when working through an ethical dilemma, the decision makers are unable to arrive at a mutually agreed upon decision. Which of the following is a reason why an agreement cannot be reached?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An agreement cannot be reached because the dilemma involves two or more equally unpleasant choices.

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of just culture in a healthcare organization?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Just culture in a healthcare organization promotes a blame-free environment where individuals are encouraged to report errors and focus on learning from them to improve patient safety and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect as just culture does not involve blaming individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the principles of just culture by advocating for punishment rather than learning. Choice D is incorrect as just culture aims to address errors constructively rather than ignore them.

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