which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory
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ATI Leadership Practice A

1. Which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Communication of goal direction.' Trait theory suggests that effective leaders possess certain traits, one of which is the ability to clearly communicate the direction and goals of the group. This trait helps in aligning the efforts of the team towards a common objective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while communication, adaptability, decision-making, and order giving are important skills for leaders, the specific trait commonly associated with leaders in trait theory is the ability to communicate the direction and goals.

2. Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Chaos theory. Chaos theory is characterized by organizations that are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (choice A) is based on the idea that there is no one best way to organize and manage a corporation. Closed system theory (choice B) refers to systems that are closed off from the outside environment and do not interact with it. Open system theory (choice C) views organizations as open systems that interact with their external environment.

3. What is the primary goal of infection control practices in healthcare settings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To control the spread of infections within the healthcare setting.' The primary goal of infection control practices is to prevent the transmission and spread of infections among patients, healthcare workers, and visitors. Choice A is incorrect because while infection control practices may indirectly contribute to shorter hospital stays by preventing additional complications, reducing the length of hospital stays is not their primary goal. Choice B is incorrect as ensuring patient safety and preventing infections are important outcomes of infection control practices but not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect because compliance with healthcare regulations is a requirement that supports the implementation of infection control practices but is not the primary goal of these practices.

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

5. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

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