ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. Which of the following best describes a somatic symptom disorder?
- A. Client experiences sudden onset of symptoms due to stress
- B. Physical manifestations occur due to underlying medical conditions
- C. Client has excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms without a medical cause
- D. Client avoids medical care due to fear of receiving a diagnosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by individuals having excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms that may or may not have an identifiable medical cause. Choice A is incorrect because the sudden onset of symptoms due to stress is more indicative of acute stress reaction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes physical manifestations related to known medical conditions, not somatic symptom disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to health anxiety or illness anxiety disorder, where individuals avoid seeking medical care due to fear of receiving a diagnosis.
2. What is the recommended procedure for a healthcare professional to follow when applying sterile gloves?
- A. Use non-sterile gloves first, followed by sterile gloves.
- B. Put on sterile gloves, then gown.
- C. Apply gloves after donning a mask.
- D. Apply gloves before touching any sterile equipment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct procedure for applying sterile gloves is to do so before touching any sterile equipment or surfaces. This helps maintain the sterility of the gloves. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest incorrect sequences that may compromise the sterility of the gloves. Using non-sterile gloves first can introduce contamination, putting on gloves before a gown can lead to contamination of the gloves during gowning, and applying gloves after donning a mask can risk contamination of the gloves from the mask.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?
- A. PT of 12 seconds
- B. aPTT of 70 seconds
- C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
4. When administering a subcutaneous injection of insulin to a client, what angle should the nurse use for the injection?
- A. 45-degree angle
- B. 60-degree angle
- C. 90-degree angle
- D. 30-degree angle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct angle for administering a subcutaneous injection, such as insulin, is 90 degrees. This angle allows for the medication to be delivered into the subcutaneous layer of tissue beneath the skin. A 45-degree angle is typically used for administering subcutaneous injections in infants or those with reduced adipose tissue, while a 60-degree angle is commonly used for intramuscular injections. A 30-degree angle is not a standard angle for subcutaneous injections.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an ethical conflict about the care she is receiving. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult about resolving the dilemma?
- A. Hospital ethics committee
- B. Quality improvement committee
- C. Chaplain
- D. Director of nursing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the hospital ethics committee. This committee is specifically designed to address and resolve ethical conflicts in patient care. It comprises professionals from various disciplines who can provide guidance and support in navigating ethical dilemmas. Choice B, the quality improvement committee, focuses on enhancing the quality of care provided but may not be equipped to handle ethical conflicts. Choice C, the chaplain, offers spiritual and emotional support but may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas. Choice D, the director of nursing, is responsible for nursing operations and may not be the appropriate resource for addressing ethical conflicts.
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