Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Clonazepam
• C. Lithium
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

2. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of saying the wrong thing to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. Patients are more interested in conversing with you than in hearing your perspective, making offense unlikely.
• C. Considering the patient's background, the likelihood of the comment causing harm is minimal.
• D. Individuals with mental illness often possess a heightened capacity for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Patients value interactions with healthcare providers who express genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their well-being. By focusing on conveying these qualities, a nurse can help alleviate fears of saying the wrong thing as patients appreciate the sincerity and empathy in the communication. This approach fosters trust and a positive therapeutic relationship, enhancing the effectiveness of patient-nurse communication.

3. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?

• A. The DSM-5 includes information on cultural considerations.
• B. The DSM-5 is a tool for healthcare providers.
• C. The DSM-5 is not used for legal purposes.
• D. The DSM-5 includes information on the prevalence of mental disorders.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.

4. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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