Nursing Elites

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?

• A. Identify the person responsible for an error
• B. Determine who should be disciplined
• C. Discover the underlying causes of an error
• D. Evaluate the effectiveness of a new policy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Discover the underlying causes of an error.' Root cause analysis (RCA) focuses on identifying the fundamental reason(s) that led to an error or problem rather than placing blame on individuals. Choice A and B are incorrect as RCA is not about pinpointing a specific person to blame or determining disciplinary actions. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of RCA is not to evaluate policy effectiveness but to uncover the root causes of issues for effective problem-solving.

3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

4. What is the primary goal of infection control practices in healthcare settings?

• A. To reduce the length of hospital stays
• B. To ensure patient safety and prevent infections
• C. To control the spread of infections within the healthcare setting
• D. To comply with healthcare regulations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To control the spread of infections within the healthcare setting.' The primary goal of infection control practices is to prevent the transmission and spread of infections among patients, healthcare workers, and visitors. Choice A is incorrect because while infection control practices may indirectly contribute to shorter hospital stays by preventing additional complications, reducing the length of hospital stays is not their primary goal. Choice B is incorrect as ensuring patient safety and preventing infections are important outcomes of infection control practices but not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect because compliance with healthcare regulations is a requirement that supports the implementation of infection control practices but is not the primary goal of these practices.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

• A. Direct patient care provider
• B. Administrator of healthcare facilities
• C. Consultant for nursing staff
• D. Policy maker in healthcare organizations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

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