ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
2. One of the most useful tools to determine reasons for turnover is:
- A. Questioning.
- B. Surveys.
- C. Employee forums.
- D. Telephone calls.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surveys are one of the most effective tools to determine reasons for turnover because they allow employees to provide feedback anonymously, leading to more truthful responses. While questioning can be part of the process, surveys provide a structured and standardized way to collect data. Employee forums may not always elicit honest responses due to peer pressure or fear of repercussions. Telephone calls may not reach all employees and do not guarantee anonymity, potentially leading to biased or incomplete information.
3. Which of the following best describes the concept of total quality management (TQM)?
- A. Top-down management
- B. Employee-centered approach
- C. Continuous improvement
- D. Quality control
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continuous improvement. Total quality management (TQM) focuses on continuously improving all aspects of healthcare delivery to enhance patient care, safety, and overall quality. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' does not capture the essence of TQM, which involves involvement at all levels of an organization. Choice B, 'Employee-centered approach,' while important, is not the defining characteristic of TQM. Choice D, 'Quality control,' is a component of TQM but does not fully encompass its comprehensive approach to quality improvement.
4. When a client experiences a major incident, what is the time frame for reporting the incident?
- A. 24 hours.
- B. 36 hours.
- C. 48 hours.
- D. 72 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '24 hours.' It is crucial to report a major incident within 24 hours of its occurrence to ensure timely and accurate documentation. Reporting incidents promptly allows for a swift response and investigation to prevent future occurrences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended time frame for reporting a major incident, which is 24 hours.
5. Which of the following is a key principle of the patient-centered care model?
- A. Healthcare provider satisfaction
- B. Cost reduction
- C. Patient autonomy
- D. Provider convenience
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patient autonomy. Patient-centered care focuses on respecting and responding to patient preferences and needs, making patient autonomy a key principle. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the patient-centered care model prioritizes the patient's well-being and involvement in decision-making over healthcare provider satisfaction, cost reduction, or provider convenience.
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