Nursing Elites

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. A staff nurse describes the unit manager as 'a born leader.' The nurse ascribes to which theory of leadership?

• A. Trait theories
• B. Behavioral theories
• C. Formal leadership theories
• D. Democratic leadership theories

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trait theories. The nurse describing the unit manager as 'a born leader' aligns with trait theories of leadership, which suggest that certain inborn characteristics or traits contribute to effective leadership. This theory emphasizes that leaders possess natural qualities that make them suitable for leadership roles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Behavioral theories focus on the actions and behaviors of leaders, formal leadership theories emphasize organizational structure and roles, and democratic leadership theories pertain to a style of leadership that involves participative decision-making.

3. When a patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted for a cholecystectomy, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Communicate the blood glucose level and insulin dose to the circulating nurse in surgery.
• B. Discuss the reason for the use of insulin therapy during the immediate postoperative period.
• C. Administer the prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery.
• D. Plan strategies to minimize the risk for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during the postoperative period.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the administration of prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery is a task that can be safely delegated to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). This action is within the scope of practice of an LPN/LVN and does not require independent nursing judgment. Choices A and B involve communicating and discussing important medical information, which are higher-level nursing actions typically performed by registered nurses. Choice D involves planning strategies to manage blood glucose levels postoperatively, which requires critical thinking and assessment skills usually performed by a registered nurse.

4. A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient�s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with?

• A. Quasi-intentional tort
• B. Misdemeanor
• C. Negligence
• D. Juvenile offense

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The RN could be charged with negligence.

5. The time period to give as notice for an appraisal is:

• A. One day.
• B. None.
• C. One week.
• D. Two days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Two days.' It is preferable to give two days' notice for a performance appraisal. Giving only one day's notice (Choice A) might not provide sufficient time for the employee to prepare adequately for the appraisal. Choice B, 'None,' is incorrect because it is essential to give advance notice for an appraisal to allow the employee time to get ready. Choice C, 'One week,' is too long of a notice period for a standard performance appraisal and could lead to unnecessary delays.

Similar Questions