ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
2. What is a common method used to collect work activity information from an applicant?
- A. Self-report logs
- B. Work sample questions
- C. Motion studies
- D. Interviewing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Work sample questions are a common method used to collect work activity information from an applicant. This method allows employers to assess an applicant's skills and abilities by having them perform tasks that simulate actual job duties. Self-report logs (Choice A) rely on applicants' self-disclosure, which may not always be accurate. Motion studies (Choice C) involve observing and analyzing work movements to improve efficiency, rather than collecting work activity information directly from applicants. While interviewing (Choice D) is a common method in the selection process, it is more focused on assessing qualifications, experiences, and fit rather than directly collecting work activity information.
3. Integrated health care systems function in a variety of models. Which of the following is a common characteristic of all systems?
- A. Deliver selective care only
- B. Deliver a whole continuum of care
- C. Treat patients only in the hospital
- D. Provide care only in the primary care setting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Integrated health care systems are designed to provide a whole continuum of care, which includes preventive, primary, specialty, hospital, and long-term care services. This integration ensures that patients receive comprehensive and coordinated care across different healthcare settings. Choice A is incorrect because integrated systems aim to provide a wide range of services, not selective care only. Choice C is incorrect as integrated systems extend care beyond hospital settings. Choice D is incorrect as these systems offer care across various settings, not limited to primary care only.
4. A nurse manager wants to implement a new policy on the unit. What is the first step in the change process according to Lewin's Change Theory?
- A. Unfreeze the system
- B. Move the system to a new level
- C. Refreeze the system
- D. Evaluate the system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unfreeze the system.' According to Lewin's Change Theory, unfreezing the system is the initial step in the change process. This step involves preparing the organization for change by creating awareness of the need for change, addressing any resistance, and establishing a sense of urgency. Choice B, 'Move the system to a new level,' is incorrect as it does not align with the first step of unfreezing. Choice C, 'Refreeze the system,' is incorrect as it pertains to the final stage of solidifying the change, not the first step. Choice D, 'Evaluate the system,' is incorrect as evaluation typically occurs after the change has been implemented, not at the beginning of the change process.
5. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?
- A. Urine dipstick for glucose
- B. Oral glucose tolerance test
- C. Fasting blood glucose level
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.
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