Nursing Elites

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. Penalties should be __________ .

• A. Determining the employee's awareness of the policy
• B. Describing the staff nurse's behavior that violated the policy
• C. Progressive
• D. Confrontation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penalties for policy violations should be progressive. This means that the disciplinary actions should escalate based on the severity or frequency of the violation. For minor infractions, like smoking in an unauthorized area, a progressive approach may include oral warnings, written warnings, suspension, and termination if the behavior persists. In contrast, major violations, such as theft, may warrant immediate and severe consequences like suspension or termination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the concept of progressively escalating penalties based on the violation's severity or recurrence.

3. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
• B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
• C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
• D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

4. The nurse is interviewing a new patient with diabetes who receives rosiglitazone (Avandia) through a restricted access medication program. What is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. The patient's blood pressure is 154/92.
• B. The patient has a history of emphysema
• C. The patient's blood glucose is 86 mg/dL.
• D. The patient has chest pressure when walking

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pressure while walking may indicate heart-related issues such as angina or a heart attack. Rosiglitazone (Avandia) has been associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events like heart failure. Given these risks, chest pressure is an urgent symptom that must be reported immediately to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12%
• B. 23-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL
• C. 40-year-old who is pregnant and has an oral glucose tolerance test result of 202 mg/dL
• D. 50-year-old who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

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