when is the managers first opportunity to reduce turnover
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance caring for their loved one with dementia and managing household responsibilities. This situation represents role conflict, where conflicting demands from different roles (caregiver and homemaker) create stress. Role ambiguity (choice A) refers to uncertainty about what is expected in a role, not conflicting demands. Role overload (choice B) occurs when there are too many responsibilities within a single role, not conflicting roles. The sick role (choice D) is a sociological concept related to the rights and responsibilities of individuals who are ill.

3. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.

4. Which of the following describes the ability to enter into a contract with an employer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Certification to contract,' which refers to the process by which a union, certified by the NLRB as a bargaining agent, can enter into a contract with an employer that has been voted on by the union membership. The other choices are incorrect because 'Certification to represent' does not specifically address entering into a contract, 'Bargaining agreement' refers to the actual agreement reached through negotiation, and 'Contract agreement' is redundant, as it simply repeats the term 'contract.'

5. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient suicide while in a healthcare facility. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the criteria for sentinel events as described by The Joint Commission, as they do not involve death or serious harm to the patient.

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