Nursing Elites

1. When assessing Richard for chest percussion or chest vibration and postural drainage, Mario would focus on the following EXCEPT:

• A. Amount of food and fluid taken during the last meal before treatment
• B. Respiratory rate, breath sounds, and location of congestion
• C. Teaching the client's relatives to perform the procedure
• D. Doctor's order regarding position restrictions and client's tolerance for lying flat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when assessing Richard for chest percussion or chest vibration and postural drainage, Mario would focus on various aspects such as the amount of food and fluid taken before treatment to prevent complications during the procedure, teaching the client's relatives to perform the procedure correctly, and following the doctor's orders regarding position restrictions and the client's tolerance for lying flat. Respiratory rate, breath sounds, and location of congestion would be assessed during the procedure itself, not as part of the pre-assessment.

2. Which of the following is a common sign of vitamin D deficiency?

• A. Brittle nails
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Night blindness
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common sign of vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone health, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness. Brittle nails (Choice A) are not typically associated with vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (Choice C) is related to vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Hair loss (Choice D) can be linked to various factors, but it is not a common sign of vitamin D deficiency.

3. The nurse interprets the statement “Bow down before me! I am the holy mother of Christ! I am the blessed Virgin Mary!” as important in documenting in which of the following areas of mental status examination?

• A. Thought content
• B. Mood
• C. Affect
• D. Attitude

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

• A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
• B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
• C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
• D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

5. How is the equalization of solute concentration of intracellular fluids (ICFs) and extracellular fluids (ECFs accomplished?

• A. Semipermeable membranes.
• B. Hydration.
• C. Osmotic pressure.
• D. Perspiration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure within the body equalizes the solute concentration of ICFs and ECFs by shifting small amounts of water in the direction of higher concentration solute. Semipermeable membranes separate one fluid compartment from another and do not directly equalize solute concentrations. Hydration and perspiration are important elements of fluid balance but do not directly achieve the equalization of solute concentrations between ICFs and ECFs, which is primarily regulated by osmotic pressure.

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