Nursing Elites

1. What time frame has the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommended that pregnant adolescents and women who are not protected against pertussis receive the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine?

• A. Between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital
• B. During the first prenatal visit when pregnancy is confirmed
• C. The vaccine should be administered 24 hours prior to delivery
• D. This vaccine is only recommended during the first trimester

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that pregnant adolescents and women without protection against pertussis should receive the Tdap vaccine ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital. This timeframe allows for the development of antibodies in the mother to protect her and provide passive immunity to the infant. Administering the vaccine during the first trimester (Choice D) is not recommended as the optimal time is between 27 and 36 weeks. Choice B, during the first prenatal visit, is too early for optimal protection, and Choice C, 24 hours prior to delivery, does not provide enough time for the vaccine to be effective before birth.

2. A mother has just given birth to a newborn with a cleft lip. Sensing that something is wrong, she starts to cry and asks the nurse, "What is wrong with my baby?" What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the mother to express her feelings
• B. Explain in simple language that the baby has a cleft lip
• C. Provide emotional support until the practitioner can talk to the mother
• D. Tell the mother a pediatrician will talk to her as soon as the baby is examined

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to express her feelings allows her to process the situation and prepares her for receiving further information in a supportive environment.

3. What is the typical presentation of pyloric stenosis in infants?

• A. Bilious vomiting
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Blood in stools
• D. Failure to thrive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projectile vomiting. Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with projectile vomiting, which is forceful and projective in nature. This occurs due to the obstruction at the pylorus, leading to the stomach being unable to empty properly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Bilious vomiting is more commonly associated with intestinal obstruction, blood in stools can occur in conditions such as necrotizing enterocolitis or allergic colitis, and failure to thrive is a nonspecific finding that can be seen in various pediatric conditions.

4. During examination of a toddler's extremities, the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged. The nurse should recognize that this finding is which?

• A. Abnormal and requires further investigation
• B. Abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee
• C. Normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric
• D. Normal because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bowleggedness is normal in toddlers due to the development of lower back and leg muscles. It usually resolves as the child grows.

5. What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes?

• A. Renal ultrasonography
• B. Computed tomography
• C. Intravenous pyelography
• D. Voiding cystourethrography

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Renal ultrasonography provides imaging of the renal parenchyma and pelvis without the risks associated with radiation or radioactive isotopes, making it a safer option, especially for children.

Similar Questions