Nursing Elites

1. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

2. Which assessment data would cause suspicion that a 3-year-old child has Hirschsprung disease?

• A. Clay-colored stools and dark urine
• B. History of early passage of meconium in the newborn period
• C. History of chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight
• D. Continual bouts of foul-smelling diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hirschsprung disease is characterized by chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight. These symptoms are indicative of the disorder due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon, leading to impaired motility and obstruction.

3. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

4. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

5. While caring for four different pediatric clients, which child is at the highest risk for dehydration?

• A. 7-year-old child with migraine headaches
• B. 4-year-old child with a broken arm
• C. 2-year-old child with cellulitis of the left leg
• D. 18-month-old child with tachypnea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 18-month-old child with tachypnea is at the highest risk for dehydration due to increased insensible water loss associated with rapid breathing.

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