Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

2. A client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min
• B. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing
• C. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
• D. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sanguineous drainage from the surgical site 48 hours after surgery could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage or infection and should be reported. Sanguineous drainage is typically seen in the early postoperative period due to the presence of blood. Serous drainage, on the other hand, is normal in the later stages of wound healing. A heart rate of 80/min is within the normal range for an adult. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in the absence of other symptoms.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Thrombophlebitis
• C. Diverticulosis
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a vein, which increases the risk of blood clots. The use of oral contraceptives further elevates the risk of clot formation, making them contraindicated in individuals with thrombophlebitis. Hyperthyroidism (Choice A), diverticulosis (Choice C), and hypocalcemia (Choice D) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

5. A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.

Similar Questions