ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should inject this medication once a day, at the same time each day.
- B. You should expect your blood glucose level to increase immediately after administration.
- C. You should rotate injection sites between your abdomen and thigh.
- D. You should inject this medication with your meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who wears glasses. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Store the glasses in a labeled case.
- B. Clean the glasses with hot water.
- C. Clean the glasses with a paper towel.
- D. Store the glasses on the bedside table.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to store the glasses in a labeled case. This helps prevent damage and loss of the glasses, ensuring they are kept safe when not in use. Cleaning the glasses with hot water (choice B) can damage the lenses or frames, while cleaning with a paper towel (choice C) might lead to scratches. Storing the glasses on the bedside table (choice D) increases the risk of misplacement or damage.
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