what lab value should a nurse monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

2. A client with heart failure is being educated by a nurse about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day." Clients with heart failure are typically advised to limit their fluid intake to around 1 liter per day to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest fluid intakes that are higher than the recommended limit, which could lead to fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms.

3. When administering an incorrect dose of medication, which facts related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when administering an incorrect dose. This information is crucial for tracking the sequence of events leading to the error. Choice B, the client's response to the medication, is important for monitoring the client's condition post-administration but may not be directly linked to the incident report. Choice C, documenting the dose that was administered, is relevant but does not provide insights into the timing of events. Choice D, detailing the reason for the error, should be included in the incident report but may not need to be documented in the client's medical record.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.

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