Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

2. A nurse is preparing an in-service about family violence for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Perpetrators of family-directed violence do not recognize their behavior as abnormal.
• B. Female clients who experience partner violence are at greater risk for chronic diseases.
• C. The victim's risk for homicide is greatest when they decide to leave the relationship.
• D. The level of violence increases over time in abusive relationships.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the risk of homicide increases significantly when a victim decides to leave an abusive relationship. This is a crucial point to emphasize in educating healthcare professionals about family violence. Choice A is incorrect because perpetrators often do not acknowledge their behavior as abnormal. Choice B is incorrect as victims of partner violence are at greater risk for chronic, not acute, diseases. Choice D is incorrect as the level of violence tends to escalate rather than decrease over time in abusive relationships.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hip pallor
• B. Leg abduction
• C. Muscle spasms
• D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A client with cirrhosis and ascites requires a care plan. Which intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Increase the client's sodium intake
• B. Increase the client's saturated fat intake
• C. Decrease the client's carbohydrate intake
• D. Decrease the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cirrhosis with ascites, decreasing fluid intake is crucial to manage the condition. This helps prevent further fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) can worsen fluid retention and edema. Increasing saturated fat intake (Choice B) is not recommended as it can contribute to liver damage. Decreasing carbohydrate intake (Choice C) is not directly related to managing ascites in cirrhosis.

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