Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level?

• A. Observe the patient's facial expressions.
• B. Use a standardized pain scale, such as 0-10.
• C. Ask the patient to rate their pain based on their mood.
• D. Ask the patient's family members to assess the pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level is to use a standardized pain scale, such as a 0-10 scale. This method provides an objective and consistent way to measure and communicate the intensity of pain experienced by the patient. Choice A, observing facial expressions, can be subjective and may not always accurately reflect the level of pain. Choice C, asking the patient to rate their pain based on their mood, may be influenced by various factors unrelated to pain. Choice D, involving the patient's family members in assessing the pain, is not ideal as pain is a subjective experience that should be reported by the patient themselves.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Ensuring the chest tube is secured properly and functioning
• B. Checking for air leaks and ensuring drainage is working
• C. Ensuring chest tube drainage is below chest level
• D. Ensuring proper documentation of chest tube output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

• A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
• B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
• C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
• D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What should the healthcare provider do?

• A. Lightly rub the lower leg to check for redness and tenderness.
• B. Apply elastic stockings every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
• D. Flex the foot while assessing for patient discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the calf circumference of both legs is crucial when assessing for DVT in an immobile patient. A significant increase in the circumference of one calf compared to the other suggests the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because rubbing the lower leg may dislodge a clot if present. Option B is incorrect as elastic stockings should not be removed frequently as this can increase the risk of clot formation. Option D is incorrect as dorsiflexing the foot can lead to pain and should not be done to assess for DVT.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

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