Nursing Elites

1. What is the focus of a continuous quality improvement program?

• A. Family
• B. Client
• C. Nurse
• D. Physician

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client. Continuous quality improvement programs are primarily focused on improving services and outcomes for clients or patients. While families, nurses, and physicians are essential in healthcare, in the context of quality improvement, the main focus is on enhancing the experience and results for the clients receiving care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of a continuous quality improvement program, which is to enhance client satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

2. Although technology has seen many advances, which two ethical principles may be in conflict because of technology?

• A. Beneficence and justice
• B. Beneficence and nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence and veracity
• D. Beneficence and confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beneficence and nonmaleficence. Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, while nonmaleficence means to 'do no harm.' With advances in technology, there can be situations where the pursuit of benefit (beneficence) may inadvertently cause harm (nonmaleficence), leading to a conflict between these two ethical principles. Choice A, beneficence and justice, is incorrect because justice pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments, not conflicting directly with beneficence. Choice C, beneficence and veracity, involves the obligation to tell the truth and is not in direct conflict with beneficence. Choice D, beneficence and confidentiality, relate to maintaining privacy and trust, which can complement rather than conflict with beneficence in most cases.

3. During a staffing crisis, managers may need to use nurse extenders. These individuals are better known as:

• A. Float RNs.
• B. Unlicensed assistive personnel.
• C. LPNs.
• D. Agency nurses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a staffing crisis, managers may need to utilize unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) as nurse extenders. UAPs help free up nurses' time, enabling them to focus more on direct client care. Float RNs (Choice A) refer to registered nurses who work in various units as needed, not specifically as nurse extenders during crises. LPNs (Choice C) are licensed practical nurses, not typically used as nurse extenders. Agency nurses (Choice D) are temporary nurses hired from external agencies, not necessarily designated as nurse extenders.

4. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true?

• A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she cannot use the title RN.
• B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States.
• C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state.
• D. The RN license is a mandatory license.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because if the nurse's home state participates in the compact agreement, she can practice in other states that are part of the agreement, but she must still renew her license in her home state. This is necessary to maintain an active license in her home state. Choice A is incorrect because upon graduation, the nurse can use the title RN if licensed, but it's not automatic. Choice B is incorrect because while the NCLEX is a national exam, the nurse needs to meet individual state requirements for licensure in each state. Choice D is incorrect because an RN license is not permissive but rather a mandatory license to practice nursing.

5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

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