Nursing Elites

1. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient with hypertension refusing medication?

• A. Educate the patient on the importance of medication
• B. Respect the patient's decision
• C. Inform the healthcare provider
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educate the patient on the importance of medication. Providing education to the patient is crucial in promoting understanding of the condition and the necessity of medication. By enhancing the patient's knowledge, healthcare providers can empower them to make informed decisions regarding their health. Choice B, respecting the patient's decision, may not be appropriate in this scenario as untreated hypertension can lead to serious complications. Choice C, informing the healthcare provider, is important but should be done after attempting to educate the patient. Choice D, exploring alternative treatment options, may be considered if the patient has concerns or side effects related to the medication, but initially, educating the patient about the importance of medication is key.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
• B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
• C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
• D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.

3. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked chicken
• B. Bananas
• C. Lean cuts of beef
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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