ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam
1. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?
- A. bile reflux
- B. low salt intake
- C. hypophosphatasia
- D. gallstones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.
2. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
3. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?
- A. Regular Check-ups
- B. Regular Screening
- C. Self-Medication
- D. Immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.
4. A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to the parents of a toddler. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as highest risk for allergies in toddlers?
- A. Eggs
- B. Milk
- C. Bananas
- D. Citrus fruits
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are one of the most common food allergens in toddlers and should be introduced carefully. Milk (choice B) is also a common allergen but is typically introduced earlier in a child's diet. Bananas (choice C) and citrus fruits (choice D) are less likely to cause allergic reactions compared to eggs.
5. A nurse is reviewing blood glucose values for a client who is at risk for Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2-hour glucose tolerance test level 150 mg/dL
- B. Fasting blood glucose 70 mg/dL
- C. Glycosylated hemoglobin 5%
- D. Casual blood glucose 90 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-hour glucose tolerance test level of 150 mg/dL is above the normal range and should be reported to the provider as it indicates impaired glucose tolerance. Choice B (Fasting blood glucose 70 mg/dL) is within the normal range. Choice C (Glycosylated hemoglobin 5%) is also within the normal range. Choice D (Casual blood glucose 90 mg/dL) is within the normal range and does not indicate impaired glucose tolerance.
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