Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

• A. bile reflux
• B. low salt intake
• C. hypophosphatasia
• D. gallstones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

2. After ileostomy, which of the following condition is NOT expected?

• A. Increased weight
• B. Irritation of skin around the stoma
• C. Liquid stool
• D. Establishment of regular bowel movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. A nurse is initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client who has a new gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client’s gastric residual every 12 hours.
• B. Obtain the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hours.
• C. Keep the client’s head elevated at 15° during feedings.
• D. Flush the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is essential to maintain tube patency and prevent blockages. This action helps ensure the continuous flow of enteral feedings without obstruction. Measuring the client’s gastric residual every 12 hours (Choice A) is important but not the priority when initiating enteral feedings. Obtaining the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hours (Choice B) is unnecessary and not directly related to tube feeding initiation. Keeping the client’s head elevated at 15° during feedings (Choice C) is a good practice to prevent aspiration, but tube flushing is more crucial to prevent tube occlusion.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased vital capacity
• B. Dry skin
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Decreased mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malnutrition can lead to a variety of physical and mental symptoms. One common manifestation of malnutrition is a decreased mental status, which includes confusion, lethargy, and cognitive impairment. Dry skin is a typical finding in malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients needed for skin health. Heat intolerance is not a direct consequence of malnutrition. While malnutrition can affect respiratory function, it typically leads to decreased vital capacity rather than increased. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased mental status.

5. A client is being taught about foods to include in a low-fiber diet. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. "A fresh pear would be a good snack option."?
• B. "I can prepare refried beans for supper."?
• C. "Bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice."?
• D. "I should choose white rice as a side dish."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is "I should choose white rice as a side dish." In a low-fiber diet, foods that are low in fiber are recommended to reduce gastrointestinal irritation. White rice is a low-fiber option suitable for this diet. Choices A, B, and C are high-fiber options and not suitable for a low-fiber diet. A fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are all high in fiber, which should be avoided in a low-fiber diet.

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