Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

• A. bile reflux
• B. low salt intake
• C. hypophosphatasia
• D. gallstones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications places the client at risk for wound dehiscence?

• A. Omeprazole
• B. Zolmitriptan
• C. Prednisone
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can impair wound healing and increase the risk of wound dehiscence. Omeprazole (Choice A) is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production and does not directly impact wound healing. Zolmitriptan (Choice B) is a medication used to treat migraines and does not affect wound healing. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, and it does not pose a significant risk for wound dehiscence.

3. What type of drug is lamivudine, used for the management of HIV infection?

• A. CCR5 antagonist
• B. fusion inhibitor
• C. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
• D. protease inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lamivudine belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), making choice C the correct answer. NRTIs like lamivudine work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, an essential component for the HIV virus to replicate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lamivudine does not function as a CCR5 antagonist, fusion inhibitor, or protease inhibitor in the management of HIV infection.

4. Which nutrient deficiency produces microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia?

• A. Zinc
• B. Iron
• C. Sodium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A deficiency in iron can lead to various symptoms, such as microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia. Iron-deficiency anemia may be caused by inadequate dietary intake; accelerated demand or losses; and inadequate absorption secondary to diarrhea, decreased acid secretions, or antacid therapy. Iron deficiency is frequently the result of postnatal feeding practices and has a serious impact on growth and mental and psychomotor development in infants and children. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as zinc deficiency typically presents with symptoms like impaired wound healing, taste abnormalities, and hair loss; sodium deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, dizziness, and confusion; and potassium deficiency may cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and abnormal heart rhythms.

5. The major determinant of a person's total cholesterol levels is the amount of cholesterol in their diet.

• A. True
• B. False
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is false that the major determinant of a person's total cholesterol levels is the amount of cholesterol in their diet. While dietary cholesterol can have some impact on total cholesterol levels, it is not the major determinant. The amount and types of fats consumed, particularly saturated and trans fats, have a more significant impact on blood cholesterol levels. Therefore, a diet high in these types of fats can lead to high cholesterol, irrespective of the amount of dietary cholesterol consumed. This is why it is essential to maintain a balanced diet with a limited intake of saturated and trans fats.

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