Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

• A. bile reflux
• B. low salt intake
• C. hypophosphatasia
• D. gallstones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased vital capacity
• B. Dry skin
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Decreased mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malnutrition can lead to a variety of physical and mental symptoms. One common manifestation of malnutrition is a decreased mental status, which includes confusion, lethargy, and cognitive impairment. Dry skin is a typical finding in malnutrition due to the lack of essential nutrients needed for skin health. Heat intolerance is not a direct consequence of malnutrition. While malnutrition can affect respiratory function, it typically leads to decreased vital capacity rather than increased. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased mental status.

3. What is the recommended dietary intervention for a patient with hyperlipidemia?

• A. Increase saturated fat intake
• B. Reduce fiber intake
• C. Increase dietary fiber intake
• D. Reduce protein intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing dietary fiber can help reduce cholesterol levels in patients with hyperlipidemia.

4. In monitoring the patient in PACU, the nurse correctly identifies that checking the patient's vital signs is done every:

• A. 1 hour
• B. 5 minutes
• C. 15 minutes
• D. 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Vital signs monitoring in the PACU (Post-Anesthesia Care Unit) is typically done every hour to closely monitor the patient's condition during the immediate postoperative period. This frequency allows the nurse to promptly identify any changes in the patient's vital signs and intervene as necessary. Choice B (5 minutes) is too frequent for routine vital signs monitoring in the PACU and may not allow for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's stability. Choice C (15 minutes) and Choice D (30 minutes) are also not in line with the standard practice of vital signs monitoring in the PACU, which is typically hourly.

5. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?

• A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
• B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
• C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
• D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.

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