ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?
- A. myasthenia gravis
- B. achalasia
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. cerebral palsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.
2. Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intake of a population group, not individuals?
- A. RDA
- B. EAR
- C. DRA
- D. UL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to assess the nutrient adequacy of population groups, not individuals. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) (choice A) is the average daily level of intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97%-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) (choice C) includes the EAR, RDA, Adequate Intake (AI), and UL, making it a broader set of nutrient reference values. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) (choice D) is the highest average daily nutrient intake level that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.
3. What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?
- A. surrounding and cushioning the fetus
- B. combining maternal and fetal blood stores to exchange nutrients
- C. producing hormones that maintain the pregnancy
- D. absorbing vitamins and minerals that can be transferred to the fetus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.
4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who reports paresthesia of the hands and feet. The provider should identify this manifestation as an indication of which of the following dietary deficiencies?
- A. Iron
- B. Riboflavin
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms, including paresthesia (tingling or numbness) of the hands and feet, due to its role in nerve health. Iron deficiency is more commonly associated with anemia symptoms like fatigue and pallor. Riboflavin deficiency can cause mouth and skin changes. Vitamin C deficiency is linked to scurvy symptoms like bleeding gums and easy bruising.
5. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Night blindness
- C. Bone pain
- D. Rashes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.
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