Nursing Elites

1. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?

• A. myasthenia gravis
• B. achalasia
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. cerebral palsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.

2. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?

• A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Fractures
• D. Hypertension and increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.

3. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

4. Angie is a disoriented client who frequently falls from the bed. As her nurse, which of the following is the best nursing intervention to prevent future falls?

• A. Tell Angie not to get up from bed unassisted
• B. Put the call bell within her reach
• C. Put bedside commode at the bedside to prevent Angie from getting up
• D. Put the bed in the lowest position ever

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

5. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?

• A. Food diary
• B. 24-hour recall
• C. Kilocalorie count
• D. Nutrient surveillance record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.

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