Nursing Elites

1. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

2. What is the first nursing action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Check the patient's urine output
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may not be necessary unless indicated by the patient's condition. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice D) is important but is not the initial action needed to address the patient's acute symptoms.

3. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.

5. What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?

• A. Monitor for infection
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Avoid physical activity
• D. Limit phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following an escharotomy for burn injuries, patients should be taught to monitor for infection and care for the incision site. Choice A is the correct answer because infection is a common risk after a procedure involving incisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake is not typically advised after an escharotomy; avoiding physical activity may vary depending on the individual's condition and should be guided by healthcare providers; and limiting phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day is not directly related to post-escharotomy care.

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