ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. What are the complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Peripheral neuropathy and retinopathy
- B. All of the above
- C. Diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
- D. Nephropathy and cardiovascular disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for include nephropathy and cardiovascular disease, in addition to diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, neuropathy, and retinopathy. While choices A and C mention some complications of diabetes, they do not cover all the complications that a nurse should monitor for. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests selecting all options, which is not accurate.
2. A patient recovering from a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin feeding the patient soft solids.
- B. Place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status.
- C. Provide ice chips to help soothe the throat.
- D. Start the patient on a clear liquid diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Patients recovering from a stroke with difficulty swallowing are at high risk for aspiration, which can lead to serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the priority is to keep the patient on NPO until a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is completed. Choice A is incorrect as feeding the patient soft solids can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as providing ice chips may further compromise swallowing safety. Choice D is incorrect as starting the patient on a clear liquid diet can also increase the risk of aspiration in this scenario.
3. A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer the medication and monitor closely.
- B. Hold the medication and consult the pharmacist.
- C. Ask another nurse to verify the dose.
- D. Call the provider for clarification.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.
4. A nurse is preparing medications for a client via nasogastric tube. What should the nurse do before administering the medications?
- A. Flush the tube with water and administer all medications at once
- B. Administer medications one after the other without flushing
- C. Crush all medications and mix them together for administration
- D. Administer medications in liquid form only
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering medications through a nasogastric tube, the nurse should administer them one after the other without flushing. Flushing the tube with water should be done before and after each medication to prevent any interactions and ensure each medication is delivered effectively. The correct answer is not to administer all medications at once (choice A) as this can lead to potential drug interactions. Crushing all medications and mixing them together (choice C) is incorrect as each medication should be given separately to maintain their individual efficacy. Administering medications in liquid form only (choice D) is limiting and may not be suitable for all types of medications that need to be administered.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
- B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
- C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
- D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
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