Nursing Elites

1. To accurately assess for jaundice in a patient with dark skin pigmentation, the nurse should examine which body areas?

• A. Nail beds
• B. Skin on the back of the hand
• C. Hard palate of the mouth
• D. Soles of the feet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To accurately assess for jaundice in a patient with dark skin pigmentation, the nurse should examine the hard palate of the mouth. Jaundice is best assessed in the sclera; however, in dark-skinned patients, normal yellow pigmentation may be present in the sclera, making it difficult to detect jaundice. Inspection of the hard palate for a yellow color can confirm the presence of jaundice. Cyanosis is best observed in the nail beds, not indicative of jaundice. While skin on the palm of the hand can indicate jaundice, the back of the hand is not a typical area for assessment. Jaundice can be assessed on the soles of the feet in dark-skinned patients, but it is better visualized in the hard palate for accurate evaluation.

2. When planning care for a client with ulcerative colitis who is experiencing symptoms, which client care activities can the nurse appropriately delegate to a unlicensed assistant?

• A. Assessing the client's bowel sounds
• B. administration of pain medication every 4 hours
• C. Evaluating the client's response to antidiarrheal medications
• D. Maintaining intake and output records

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delegating tasks such as providing skin care, maintaining intake and output records, and obtaining the client's weight are within the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistant. Assessing bowel sounds and evaluating the response to medications require nursing judgment and should not be delegated.

3. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

4. You are developing a careplan on Sally, a 67 y.o. patient with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following do you include?

• A. Administering a lactulose enema as ordered.
• B. Encouraging a protein-rich diet.
• C. Administering sedatives, as necessary.
• D. Encouraging ambulation at least four times a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a lactulose enema as ordered helps reduce ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A nurse is preparing to remove a nasogastric tube from a client. The nurse would instruct the client to do which of the following just before the nurse removes the tube?

• A. To perform Valsalva’s maneuver
• B. To take hold and hold a deep breath
• C. To exhale
• D. To inhale and exhale quickly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the nurse removes a nasogastric tube, the client is instructed to take and hold a deep breath. This will be obstructed temporarily during the tube removal. This allows for easy withdrawal through the esophagus into the nose. The nurse removes the tube with one smooth, continuous pull.

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