Nursing Elites

1. What is the procedure where a device is used to shock the heart back into a normal rhythm during a life-threatening arrhythmia?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Cardioversion
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Ablation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Defibrillation. Defibrillation is the procedure of using a device to deliver an electric shock to the heart during life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia to restore a normal rhythm. Choice B, Cardioversion, is similar but is typically used for less severe arrhythmias. Choice C, Echocardiogram, is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. Choice D, Ablation, is a procedure to treat certain types of arrhythmias by scarring or destroying tissue that triggers abnormal electrical signals.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

3. Which valves close during ventricular systole and open during ventricular diastole?

• A. Semilunar valves
• B. Atrioventricular Valves
• C. Mitral valve
• D. Tricuspid valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Atrioventricular Valves. The atrioventricular (AV) valves, including the mitral valve and tricuspid valve, close during ventricular systole to prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria. They open during ventricular diastole to allow blood flow from the atria into the ventricles. Semilunar valves, choice A, are located at the exits of the ventricles and prevent backflow into the ventricles. The mitral valve and tricuspid valve, choices C and D, are specific types of AV valves.

4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client for DVT prophylaxis, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count as enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because PT/INR, aPTT, and hemoglobin levels are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration and DVT prophylaxis.

5. This test measures the amount of blood the heart pumps with each beat, often used to assess heart function.

• A. Ejection fraction
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Stroke volume
• D. End-diastolic volume

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ejection fraction. Ejection fraction is a measure of the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle with each beat, used to assess heart function. Choice B, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is not specific to each beat. Choice C, Stroke volume, is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction but does not specify the percentage of blood pumped out. Choice D, End-diastolic volume, is the volume of blood in the ventricle just before it contracts and does not directly measure the blood pumped with each beat.

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