Nursing Elites

1. Which procedure is used to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space, helping to relieve pressure on the lungs?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a procedure specifically designed to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space in the chest. This process helps to relieve pressure on the lungs and improve breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not to remove fluid from the pleural space. Chest X-ray (Choice C) is an imaging test that provides a picture of the structures inside the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) test (Choice D) is a blood test that measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing information about how well the lungs are working, but it does not involve removing excess fluid or air from the pleural space.

2. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

3. Which term refers to the ability of the heart to initiate impulses repetitively and spontaneously?

• A. Contractility
• B. Excitability
• C. Automaticity
• D. Rhythmicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Automaticity. Automaticity is the specific term used to describe the heart's ability to generate impulses repetitively and spontaneously. Contractility (A) refers to the ability of muscle fibers to contract, not the initiation of impulses. Excitability (B) is the ability of cells to respond to stimuli but is not specific to the heart's impulse generation. Rhythmicity (D) is a related term but does not specifically describe the heart's spontaneous impulse initiation.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. Which term refers to a condition where the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, often referred to as a heart attack?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Arrhythmia
• C. Stroke
• D. Aneurysm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, myocardial infarction. A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, often by a blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because arrhythmia refers to an irregular heartbeat, stroke involves the interruption of blood flow to the brain, and an aneurysm is a bulge in a blood vessel.

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