ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?
- A. Thoracentesis
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.
2. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium?
- A. Mitral regurgitation
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Tricuspid regurgitation
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mitral regurgitation is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium. This can result in symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aortic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation, and pulmonary hypertension involve different heart valves or conditions, not the mitral valve specifically.
3. The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary toxicity
- B. Thyroid dysfunction
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Renal dysfunction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.
4. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 58 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- B. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
- D. Monitor the client’s heart rate and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 58 bpm is considered low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment. Choice A is incorrect because administering the beta blocker without considering the low heart rate can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the dose of the beta blocker can lead to further slowing of the heart rate, which is not safe in this situation. Choice D is not the priority action; holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is more crucial.
5. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) should avoid which type of food?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone specifically affects potassium levels, not sodium, calcium, or chloride.
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