Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is characterized by the weakening and rupture of the walls of the alveoli in the lungs, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Emphysema. Emphysema is a lung condition where the walls of the alveoli become weak and rupture, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This leads to shortness of breath. Choice B, Bronchitis, is characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the alveoli. Choice C, Atelectasis, involves the collapse of a part or entire lung, not the weakening and rupture of alveolar walls. Choice D, Pulmonary fibrosis, is a condition where lung tissue becomes thickened and stiff, not involving the weakening and rupture of alveoli walls.

2. The nurse is giving a client an IV bolus of heparin. What is the most important nursing action?

• A. Monitor the client's heart rate.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Check for signs of bleeding.
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an IV bolus of heparin, the most important nursing action is to monitor the client's heart rate. Heparin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, making it crucial to assess the heart rate for any abnormalities. Checking the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring the heart rate. While checking for signs of bleeding (Choice C) is essential, it is not the most crucial action when administering heparin. Monitoring the respiratory rate (Choice D) is also important but not as directly related to the potential side effects of heparin as monitoring the heart rate.

3. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

4. What is a condition where the pulmonary arteries become blocked by a blood clot, leading to chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Pneumothorax
• C. Pulmonary edema
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a condition where a blood clot blocks one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, resulting in symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and other related signs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pneumothorax refers to a collapsed lung, pulmonary edema is the build-up of fluid in the lungs, and pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs - none of which directly involve a blood clot blocking the pulmonary arteries.

5. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

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