Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the airways become swollen and produce extra mucus, making it difficult to breathe, often associated with COPD?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Emphysema
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is a long-term inflammation of the bronchi, leading to persistent cough and mucus production, commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia (Choice B) is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. Emphysema (Choice C) is a lung condition where the air sacs in the lungs are damaged, making it difficult to breathe. Tuberculosis (Choice D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.

2. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. How does the nurse explain this?

• A. This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.
• B. This is an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
• C. This is an indication of overdose.
• D. This is a sign of heart failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.' Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to nitroglycerin typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as an overdose of nitroglycerin would likely present with symptoms beyond just a headache. Choice D is incorrect because headaches related to nitroglycerin are not indicative of heart failure.

3. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

4. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

5. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.

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