Nursing Elites

1. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

• A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
• B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
• C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
• D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.

2. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

• A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
• B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
• C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
• D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck’s traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

3. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Personal/professional development.' Educating personnel on the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) falls under the realm of personal/professional development, as it aims to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals regarding military laws and regulations. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses more on responsibility and answerability rather than education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' is more specific to skill development and job-related learning rather than legal education. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' pertains to maintaining physical standards and appearance, which is unrelated to educating personnel on UCMJ.

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