ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.
2. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
- D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.
3. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?
- A. Heart block
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia (choice B) is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, Bradycardia (choice C) is a slow heart rate, and Arrhythmia (choice D) is a general term used to describe any abnormal heart rhythm, which may or may not involve delays or blocks in electrical impulses.
4. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Headache
- B. Flushing
- C. Dizziness
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.
5. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve becomes narrowed, restricting blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?
- A. Mitral stenosis
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Tricuspid regurgitation
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mitral stenosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the heart's mitral valve, which hinders the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This obstruction can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue. Aortic stenosis (choice B) is the narrowing of the aortic valve, not the mitral valve. Tricuspid regurgitation (choice C) is the backflow of blood through the tricuspid valve, not narrowing. Pulmonary hypertension (choice D) is increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries, not narrowing of the mitral valve.
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