the nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client what lab value should be monitored
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. Which test measures how well the lungs work by assessing the amount of air the lungs can hold and how quickly air can be exhaled?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Spirometry. Spirometry is a pulmonary function test that evaluates lung function by measuring the amount of air a person can exhale and how quickly, assisting in the diagnosis of conditions such as asthma and COPD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, Arterial blood gas (ABG) evaluates blood pH, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels, and a Chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs but does not measure lung function.

3. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) should avoid which type of food?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone specifically affects potassium levels, not sodium, calcium, or chloride.

5. What is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to a buildup of fluid in the lungs and other parts of the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, resulting in a buildup of fluid in the lungs and other parts of the body. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle, not specifically the inability to pump blood effectively. Choice C, Myocardial infarction, is a heart attack caused by a blocked blood supply to the heart muscle, not directly related to the heart's pumping efficiency. Choice D, Pulmonary edema, is a condition characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs, often a consequence of heart failure but not the primary condition described in the question.

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