Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing medication instructions for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the provider about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the healthcare provider include in the response?

• A. Suppress rejection
• B. Decrease pain
• C. Improve circulation
• D. Boost immunity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cyclosporine is used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. It helps to reduce the risk of the body attacking and rejecting the new organ. This medication is crucial in ensuring the success of the kidney transplant by keeping the immune system in check.

2. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
• B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
• C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
• D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.

3. Which physical assessment technique should be omitted when caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with Wilms' tumor?

• A. Performing range-of-motion exercises on lower extremities
• B. Palpating the abdomen
• C. Assessing for bowel sounds
• D. Percussing ankle and knee reflexes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palpating the abdomen should be omitted when caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with Wilms' tumor because it could disturb the tumor and potentially cause the malignancy to spread. The other assessment techniques are safe to perform and provide valuable information about the child's condition. Range-of-motion exercises help assess mobility and joint health, assessing for bowel sounds is important to monitor gastrointestinal function, and percussing ankle and knee reflexes can help evaluate neurological responses.

4. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?

• A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
• B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
• C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
• D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.

5. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

• A. Periorbital ecchymosis
• B. Subdural hematoma
• C. Protruding bone
• D. Epidural hematoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

Similar Questions