ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. The healthcare provider is preparing medication instructions for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the provider about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the healthcare provider include in the response?
- A. Suppress rejection
- B. Decrease pain
- C. Improve circulation
- D. Boost immunity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cyclosporine is used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. It helps to reduce the risk of the body attacking and rejecting the new organ. This medication is crucial in ensuring the success of the kidney transplant by keeping the immune system in check.
2. The caregiver is providing care to a pediatric client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which caregiver statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider?
- A. I will administer this medication between meals.
- B. I will administer this medication at bedtime.
- C. I will administer this medication one hour before meals.
- D. I will administer this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Prednisone should be administered with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking prednisone with food helps to minimize stomach irritation and other gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication.
3. A nurse administers naloxone (Narcan) to a post-op patient experiencing respiratory sedation. What undesirable effect would the nurse anticipate after giving this medication?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Tics and tremors
- C. Increased Pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone reverses the effects of narcotics. Although the patient�s respiratory status will improve after administration of naloxone, the pain will be more acute.
4. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
- B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
- C. Acute Pain
- D. Risk for Aspiration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.
5. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?
- A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
- B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
- C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
- D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.
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