Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a child for possible alopecia from chemotherapy. What information should the nurse give regarding alopecia?

• A. Hair usually regrows in two years.
• B. When hair regrows, it may have a slightly different color or texture.
• C. Expose your head to sunlight to minimize alopecia.
• D. Wearing hats and scarves are preferred to wearing a wig.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hair loss from chemotherapy is usually temporary, and when it regrows, it may have a different color or texture. Sun exposure should be minimized, as the scalp may be more sensitive. Wearing hats and scarves can provide comfort and protection, but there is no preference over wearing a wig. Choice A is incorrect because hair regrowth after chemotherapy varies from person to person and usually occurs sooner than two years. Choice C is incorrect as sun exposure should be minimized to protect the sensitive scalp. Choice D is incorrect as the preference between wearing hats, scarves, or a wig is subjective and depends on the individual's comfort and preferences.

2. The parents of a child with sickle cell anemia ask why their child did not have a sickle cell crisis until he was approximately 6 months old. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your child probably had a crisis, and you were unaware of the symptoms.
• B. Are you sure your child has sickle cell anemia and not sickle cell trait?
• C. Affected children can be asymptomatic in early infancy because of high levels of fetal hemoglobin that inhibit sickling.
• D. Have you asked your doctor about this yet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is present in high levels during early infancy, inhibiting sickling unlike adult hemoglobin (HbS). As the levels of HbF decrease and HbS increases, the risk of sickling and crises becomes more pronounced, typically after 6 months of age. Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the crisis went unnoticed, which is not supported by medical knowledge. Choice B is incorrect as it questions the child's diagnosis rather than explaining the phenomenon of delayed crises. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide the parents with the necessary information regarding their query.

3. A major reason for the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm infant is:

• A. Excessive surfactant
• B. Lack of surfactant
• C. Immature immune system
• D. Lack of body fat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lack of surfactant. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in preterm infants is primarily due to a lack of surfactant, which is crucial for keeping the lungs inflated. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice A, Excessive surfactant, is incorrect as RDS is caused by an insufficient amount of surfactant. Choice C, Immature immune system, and Choice D, Lack of body fat, are not directly related to the development of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

4. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 3 years
• B. 4 to 5 years
• C. 6 to 7 years
• D. 8 to 9 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is typically between 4 and 5 years old. MCNS is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, particularly within this age range.

5. Which type of breath sound is normally heard over the entire surface of the lungs except for the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium?

• A. Vesicular
• B. Bronchial
• C. Adventitious
• D. Bronchovesicular

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are normally heard over most of the lung fields, except near the trachea and main bronchi, where bronchial or bronchovesicular sounds may be heard.

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