the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management as used for a patient who has second and third degree burns and needs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

2. How does a healthcare professional assess a patient's fluid balance, and what signs indicate fluid overload?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring intake and output and checking for edema. Monitoring intake and output provides information about fluid balance in the body, while checking for edema helps assess for fluid overload. Lung sounds and signs of orthopnea are more indicative of respiratory issues rather than fluid balance. Daily weight measurement is useful to assess fluid status, but it alone may not provide a comprehensive evaluation of fluid balance.

3. Which of the following best describes a somatic symptom disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by individuals having excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms that may or may not have an identifiable medical cause. Choice A is incorrect because the sudden onset of symptoms due to stress is more indicative of acute stress reaction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes physical manifestations related to known medical conditions, not somatic symptom disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to health anxiety or illness anxiety disorder, where individuals avoid seeking medical care due to fear of receiving a diagnosis.

4. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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