ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?
- A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
- B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
- D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.
2. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?
- A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
- B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
- C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Decrease the client's IV fluids
- B. Reposition the client
- C. Administer oxygen by face mask
- D. Document the findings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.
4. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted for monitoring. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Ensure the client is on seizure precautions.
- B. Educate the client about seizure triggers.
- C. Monitor for signs of an impending seizure.
- D. Initiate IV access for anti-seizure medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is on seizure precautions. This is crucial in preventing injury during a seizure episode. While educating the client about seizure triggers (choice B) is important for long-term management, it is not the priority when the client is admitted for monitoring. Monitoring for signs of an impending seizure (choice C) is essential but does not address immediate safety concerns. Initiating IV access for anti-seizure medication (choice D) is not the priority unless a seizure occurs and medical intervention is needed.
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