ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?
- A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
- B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
- D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.
2. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, a headache, and low back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer acetaminophen
- B. Stop the transfusion
- C. Slow the transfusion rate
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion (Choice B). The symptoms described - chills, headache, and low back pain - are indicative of a transfusion reaction. The priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications such as more severe reactions like hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. Administering acetaminophen (Choice A) may help with symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Slowing the transfusion rate (Choice C) may not be sufficient if a serious transfusion reaction is occurring. Administering antihistamines (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; stopping the transfusion takes precedence to ensure patient safety.
3. A client with severe dyspnea is scheduled for multiple diagnostic tests. Which test should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer an echocardiogram first.
- B. Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client.
- C. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- D. Order an MRI first.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client. When a client presents with severe dyspnea, a chest x-ray should be prioritized as it helps in assessing the lungs and heart, which are crucial in cases of respiratory distress. Echocardiograms are more focused on assessing heart function and may not provide immediate information needed in cases of dyspnea. CT scans and MRIs are more detailed imaging studies that are not typically the first-line diagnostic tests for severe dyspnea.
4. What is the most appropriate method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Insert a urinary catheter using clean gloves.
- B. Limit the duration of catheter use.
- C. Use a smaller size catheter to prevent trauma.
- D. Change the catheter tubing every 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit the duration of catheter use. Limiting the duration of catheterization is a crucial method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prolonged catheter use increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, leading to infections. Using clean gloves for insertion (choice A) is important for preventing contamination but does not address the main cause of CAUTIs. Using a smaller size catheter (choice C) may help reduce trauma but does not directly prevent infections. Changing the catheter tubing every 24 hours (choice D) is not necessary unless clinically indicated, and it is not the most effective method for preventing CAUTIs.
5. How can a healthcare provider prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?
- A. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- B. Provide the patient with a special mattress.
- C. Elevate the patient's legs to reduce pressure.
- D. Limit the patient's movement to reduce friction.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the immobile patient with a special mattress is an effective way to prevent pressure ulcers. Special mattresses help distribute pressure evenly and reduce the risk of developing pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on sensitive areas. Turning the patient every 4 hours (Choice A) is a standard practice to prevent pressure ulcers but may not be as effective as using a special mattress. Elevating the patient's legs (Choice C) can help with circulation but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers. Limiting the patient's movement (Choice D) can lead to other complications and is not a recommended method for preventing pressure ulcers.
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