Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

2. A health care provider asks the nurse who is caring for a client with a new colostomy to ask the hospital's stoma nurse to visit the client. What is the nurse's responsibility?

• A. Contact the stoma nurse immediately.
• B. Educate the client on stoma care.
• C. Assess the stoma site for complications.
• D. Arrange for follow-up visits with the stoma nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Educate the client on stoma care.' The nurse's primary responsibility in this scenario is to provide education to the client on stoma care. This empowers the client to take care of their colostomy effectively. While it is important to involve the stoma nurse for specialized care, the immediate action required from the nurse is client education. Choice A is incorrect as the immediate action is not to contact the stoma nurse but to educate the client first. Choice C is not the nurse's initial responsibility unless there are obvious complications. Choice D is premature as arranging follow-up visits should come after the client has been educated and initial care has been provided.

3. A client with severe dyspnea is scheduled for multiple diagnostic tests. Which test should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer an echocardiogram first.
• B. Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client.
• C. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• D. Order an MRI first.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client. When a client presents with severe dyspnea, a chest x-ray should be prioritized as it helps in assessing the lungs and heart, which are crucial in cases of respiratory distress. Echocardiograms are more focused on assessing heart function and may not provide immediate information needed in cases of dyspnea. CT scans and MRIs are more detailed imaging studies that are not typically the first-line diagnostic tests for severe dyspnea.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Aspirate for a blood return before depressing the plunger
• B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle
• C. Administer the medication 2.54 cm (1 in) from the umbilicus
• D. The nurse should not expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when administering enoxaparin is not to expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Expelling the air bubble may lead to the loss of medication and result in an incomplete dose. Aspirating for a blood return (Choice A) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin. Inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (Choice B) is not specific to administering enoxaparin. Administering the medication 2.54 cm (1 in) from the umbilicus (Choice C) is not a standard guideline for enoxaparin administration.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

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