Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

2. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

3. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.

4. The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary toxicity
• B. Thyroid dysfunction
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Renal dysfunction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.

5. The client is on digoxin and has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?

• A. Check the potassium level.
• B. Give Digibind as an antidote.
• C. Change the dosing of digoxin to every other day.
• D. Administer a potassium supplement to decrease digoxin toxicity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give Digibind as an antidote in cases of severe digoxin toxicity. Digibind works by binding to digoxin and preventing it from causing further harm. Checking the potassium level (choice A) is important but not the priority when the client has severe toxicity. Changing the dosing to every other day (choice C) is not appropriate in the setting of severe toxicity where immediate action is required. Giving a potassium supplement (choice D) may be needed eventually, but the priority is to administer Digibind to counteract the toxic effects of digoxin.

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