Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client following a Billroth II procedure. On review of the post-operative orders, which of the following, if prescribed, would the nurse question and verify?

• A. Irrigating the nasogastric tube
• B. Coughing a deep breathing exercises
• C. Leg exercises
• D. Early ambulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Irrigating the nasogastric tube is typically not recommended after a Billroth II procedure unless specifically ordered by a physician due to the risk of disrupting the surgical site.

2. A nurse is reviewing the orders of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Select the interventions that the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client.

• A. Small, frequent high-calorie feedings.
• B. Meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed for pain.
• C. Place the client in a side-lying position with the head elevated 45-degrees.
• D. Administer antacids and anticholinergics to suppress gastrointestinal secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to prescribe pain medications such as meperidine to manage the abdominal pain, which is a prominent symptom of the condition. The other options are incorrect because: A) Clients with acute pancreatitis are normally placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status to rest the pancreas, so small, frequent high-calorie feedings are not indicated. C) Placing the client in a side-lying position with the head elevated 45-degrees helps decrease tension on the abdomen and may ease pain, but it is not a standard intervention for acute pancreatitis. D) Administering antacids and anticholinergics to suppress gastrointestinal secretions is not a routine intervention for acute pancreatitis.

3. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

4. The nurse evaluates the client’s stoma during the initial post-op period. Which of the following observations should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. The stoma is slightly edematous
• B. The stoma is dark red to purple
• C. The stoma oozes a small amount of blood
• D. The stoma does not expel stool

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A dark red to purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow or ischemia, which requires immediate medical attention. This color change could be a sign of inadequate blood supply to the stoma tissue, leading to tissue damage or necrosis. Reporting this observation promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of immediate medical concern. A slightly edematous stoma, oozing a small amount of blood, or not expelling stool may not be uncommon findings during the initial post-op period and can be managed without urgent intervention.

5. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis?

• A. Cholelithiasis
• B. Gastritis
• C. Perforated ulcer
• D. Incarcerated hernia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A perforated ulcer is most likely to directly cause peritonitis due to the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

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