ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What should the healthcare provider do?
- A. Lightly rub the lower leg to check for redness and tenderness.
- B. Apply elastic stockings every 4 hours.
- C. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
- D. Flex the foot while assessing for patient discomfort.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Measuring the calf circumference of both legs is crucial when assessing for DVT in an immobile patient. A significant increase in the circumference of one calf compared to the other suggests the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because rubbing the lower leg may dislodge a clot if present. Option B is incorrect as elastic stockings should not be removed frequently as this can increase the risk of clot formation. Option D is incorrect as dorsiflexing the foot can lead to pain and should not be done to assess for DVT.
2. A client is being taught about which foods to include in a low fiber diet. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. Choosing a fresh pear would be a good snack option
- B. I should make refried beans for supper
- C. Selecting white rice as a side dish is a good choice
- D. Opting for bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because white rice is a low-fiber food suitable for a low-fiber diet, making it an appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are high-fiber foods and not suitable for a low-fiber diet.
3. A nurse at a local health department is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with listeriosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Provide the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and Prevention with the client's information
- B. Inform the client that they are required to have health department staff directly observe their treatment
- C. Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements
- D. Find out whether the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Determine whether the condition is reportable under state requirements.' Listeriosis is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are legally required to report cases to public health authorities. By checking the state requirements for reportable diseases, the nurse ensures compliance with public health regulations. Choice A is incorrect because providing the client's information to the CDC is not the immediate action needed. Choice B is incorrect as direct observation of treatment is not a standard procedure for listeriosis. Choice D is also incorrect as determining if the condition is endemic in the client's neighborhood is not the primary concern when managing a diagnosed case of listeriosis.
4. What are the clinical signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus, and how should a nurse respond?
- A. Monitoring blood glucose levels and administering insulin
- B. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia
- C. Fatigue, blurred vision, and fruity breath
- D. Educating the patient on blood glucose monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct signs of hyperglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus are polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). These symptoms indicate high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct response for a nurse would be to recognize these signs, monitor blood glucose levels, and administer insulin to manage the hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because it only addresses the response aspect without mentioning the signs. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the classic clinical signs of hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus.
5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
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