ATI RN
Fluid and Electrolytes ATI
1. The nurse assessing skin turgor in an elderly patient should remember that:
- A. Overhydration causes the skin to tent.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Normal skin turgor is dry and firm. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration does not cause the skin to tent; it is dehydration that leads to tenting. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration, not overhydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice D is incorrect because normal skin turgor is dry and firm, not moist and boggy.
2. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.
3. The healthcare provider is evaluating a patient's laboratory results. Based on the laboratory findings, what results will cause the release of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
- A. Increased serum sodium
- B. Decreased serum sodium
- C. Decrease in serum osmolality
- D. Decrease in thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased serum sodium. When serum sodium levels increase, it triggers the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH helps in retaining water, reducing urine output, and maintaining fluid balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased serum sodium, decrease in serum osmolality, and decrease in thirst do not stimulate the release of ADH.
4. Retention of electrolytes (especially sodium) in the interstitial fluid can result from:
- A. decreased aldosterone secretion.
- B. increased ADH secretion.
- C. increased aldosterone secretion.
- D. decreased ADH secretion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, increases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to retention of sodium and water in the interstitial fluid. Increased aldosterone secretion enhances the reabsorption of sodium, thereby increasing its retention. Choice A is incorrect because decreased aldosterone secretion would lead to less sodium reabsorption and increased excretion. Choice B is incorrect because increased ADH secretion primarily affects water reabsorption rather than sodium. Choice D is incorrect because decreased ADH secretion would lead to increased water excretion but not necessarily affect sodium retention.
5. You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect?
- A. Hypophosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
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