ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the most common injury among elderly persons?
- A. Atherosclerotic changes in the blood vessels
- B. Increased incidence of gallbladder disease
- C. Urinary Tract Infection
- D. Hip fracture
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hip fracture is the most common injury among elderly persons. As people age, their bones become more fragile, making them more susceptible to hip fractures, often resulting from falls. These fractures can significantly impact an elderly person's quality of life and mobility, making them a significant concern in geriatric care.
2. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?
- A. Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal girth, and inspection
- B. Assessment for distention, tenderness, and discoloration around the umbilicus
- C. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation
- D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.
3. When is additional Vitamin C not required?
- A. Infancy
- B. Young adulthood
- C. Childhood
- D. Pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C requirements are increased during infancy, childhood, and pregnancy due to growth and development. However, during young adulthood, the body generally requires a consistent amount of Vitamin C as it is not undergoing rapid growth or physiological changes that necessitate an increase in Vitamin C intake.
4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
5. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
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